Like my colleague, I find that a difficult question. But I think if the Prime Minister were required by statute to invoke the process and were then required to respect the outcome of the process--that's your question really--then it's true that section 24 is still not literally amended. But then it seems to me that Mr. Paquette's point becomes very difficult to answer, because then there does seem to be a mandatory move to an elected Senate, albeit behind the back of section 24.
So I think there would at least be a risk of unconstitutionality if the bill had those two elements to it, on Mr. Paquette''s reasoning.