I think that if the purpose of the tax reduction was to promote economic growth, there is a considerable amount of evidence that a shift from personal income tax toward consumption tax would promote the rate of economic growth, keeping the overall tax burden constant. However, there is a concern that a move of that sort could increase income inequality.
So to a large extent, the answer to the question depends on the relative weight you put on reducing income inequality compared to increasing the rate of growth. I think that is a question for politicians to decide in the countries concerned, rather than the OECD.