There is one thing that concerns me. A donor organization could, in complete good faith, give a sum of money to a charitable organization that then, for some reason, exceeded the 10% limit, when that was not the intention of the donor organization. From what I read, and according to the bill that has been proposed to us, the donor organization would share the responsibility, even if it had no intention whatsoever to contribute to political activities. Is that correct?
On May 15th, 2012. See this statement in context.