Do you think the formula provided for is sufficient? As you mentioned, the person already loses income when they are injured. The allowance is 75%, but my understanding is that it will actually be between 70% and 75%, and that means 50% of the amount the member was receiving before the injury. Injured members are already receiving less income support, and that amount will drop even further post-retirement if they haven't made pension contributions for at least 10 years. In your view, is a benefit that represents 70% to 75% of the amount they were previously receiving sufficient for veterans to have a decent standard of living in their retirement years?
On May 26th, 2015. See this statement in context.