I appreciate that. I applaud what you're trying to do here and your intent here. The question really is whether it is possible that a court could interpret this to mean that it's for the individual only. I don't see why that's not possible, but I'd like your answer on that. As opposed to the individual and his spouse, the individual and the neighbours who come over to visit, why is it not possible that a court could interpret this to mean the individual only?
On March 12th, 2012. See this statement in context.