Yes, but we're told the French text has to be corrected because there was a mistake. Why shouldn't the English text be corrected instead? Why isn't it being suggested that the French version was correct?
Let's try to interpret it. This means that a minister can't solicit funds personally, but that he can ask anyone else to do it for him. That enables him to do indirectly what he isn't allowed to do directly. According to the French version, the office holder can't do it personally.
Even if it's only once in a hundred times, couldn't the French version be correct and the English version not? I simply want to emphasize that fact. Is that possible?