We detected that there was a failure to concord between the English and the French version. In this particular case, the drafters prepared the English version correctly and the French version incorrectly. It's perfectly possible that on other occasions they might prepare the English version improperly and vice versa, but in this particular case the amendment seeks to align the French with the English version.
I don't know if Mr. Sauvageau is trying to generate some sort of grand debate over the Official Languages Act here, but our amendment states that the French version is to be altered to match with the English version. It doesn't require a grand debate. If he would like to understand further why we believe this, and why the technical drafters are of the view that the English version in this case was right and the French version needed amendment, then I'd be glad to turn the microphone over to those experts. But I'm very confused as to why Mr. Sauvageau is making a point out of this, and I'm becoming suspicious as well.