But when the judge had that authority previously, was not the burden...? I'm trying to understand this. I'm not a criminal lawyer.
Previously, if the judge had the authority to order an indeterminate sentence, or to order a long-term offender supervision order, or to order a sentence that an individual found guilty for a third time of the same kind of offence would have been liable for, was it not at that point that both sides had to bring evidence for one or the other option?