I just have a couple of other quick questions.
One point was disturbing to me a little bit, and perhaps I could be in error on this. You said that when individuals, of course, reach the age of 40, they're maybe not deemed to be a threat anymore relative to their previous years. Well, does not the fact that there was just another conviction registered allay that theory? Does that not suggest that they obviously haven't learned and they've just had another conviction registered? Does that not possibly suggest that the threat of recidivism is still highly prominent, regardless of their accelerated age?