First of all, Mr. Chairman, I take it the government will not be supporting our colleague's amendment. Secondly, I thought this amendment was sanctioning a practice that had become accepted through use. I can't imagine that once the psychiatric report is available and the time comes to declare someone a dangerous offender, no written notice will be given. I don't quite understand. In my opinion, this amendment is formally acknowledging a common practice. Am I wrong to say that? Am I wrong to think the government has no intention of supporting this amendment?
On November 20th, 2007. See this statement in context.