To my mind, a seizure occurs when a creditor directs a seizure of property belonging to a debtor. In this instance, there was no creditor attempting to be reimbursed. The bank didn't seize the money for a creditor; it merely froze the funds, by which I mean it rendered them inaccessible for the period of time during which the person was engaged in illegal activities.
On May 3rd, 2022. See this statement in context.