Going back to the context issue that we discussed a few minutes ago, I've heard the argument that political parties need to be able to have some freedom to communicate with electors as part of the democratic process leading to a party being elected.
If we look south, for instance, in the United States, these kinds of arguments actually have a constitutional foundation at the level of principle. But as a matter of practice, is the communication between parties and electors impaired because privacy laws apply to political parties? From a practical, concrete perspective, we know of a number of jurisdictions where political parties are subject to privacy laws, and in these jurisdictions no one is saying that subjecting parties to privacy laws has, in effect, impaired the quality of the discussion between parties and electors.
Theoretically, perhaps, there is an argument that can be made, but on the ground, it has not been borne out where these laws apply, and I have not seen evidence—although I hear the argument and it's an interesting argument—that the quality of the communication would be impaired if political parties were subject to privacy laws.