The short answer is no. What exists in other jurisdictions is rules that have stricter requirements on the conditions for consent, explicit or not, meaningful or not, but not laws that override terms of use of the company. In Europe, for instance, if there are stronger standards requiring explicit consent in many cases, then the consumer, the individual, is better informed of the uses that will be made, but they do not go as far as you're suggesting. Of course, we're looking at this issue on the facts from Facebook in our investigation.
On November 1st, 2018. See this statement in context.