Okay.
I understand why, in the question that Mr. Barrett had asked, there would be times when you would discuss whether an individual should be made privy to information in terms of a foreign threat if you thought that perhaps the individual was colluding with or was an agent of the foreign source, but in the event that you realized the person was blameless and was being made susceptible to threats from a foreign source, what would be the reason why the RCMP would not advise that individual?