I've been reading this bill over and over. You said “reduced as a result of financial distress by the sponsoring firm” in your opening statement. Does the two-page bill talk anywhere in its actual wording about distressed financial firms? Does it actually mention refundability? We talked on Tuesday about bankruptcy; I don't see it mentioning bankruptcy. So first, then, did you see any wording that leads you there?
Second, based on your analysis—I know you're not lawyers—would you agree that the wording is such that it is open to the interpretation you just gave, that it applies a lot more broadly than to the two firms they're claiming, and that in actual fact, based on the wording that's here now, the likelihood of its applying to just the two firms is pretty slim?