I would begin by saying that an inverse relationship also exists. Some products are no longer made here because tariffs were eliminated in the past. In the 2000s, three textile mills were closed on the same day in Huntingdon. Everyone remembers that. And the next day, the tariffs were eliminated.
That being said, I don't want to consider only the consumer's point of view. Even if a product is no longer being manufactured here, the fact that a tariff is being imposed will incite those countries to negotiate free trade agreements with us because they want to have access to our market. If we give them the preferential tariff before we even sit down to negotiate, what could we put on the table to get what we want from them?