Thank you very much.
I want to go back to this whole issue of tax expenditure just for a moment, in terms of the figure of $34 million. If taxpayer A has shares worth $5 million, donates them, and as such doesn't pay any capital gains tax on that transaction, you might attribute, depending on the inclusion rate, a tax expenditure of $1 million to that transaction.
However, if taxpayer A doesn't make any donation and holds onto his shares, he doesn't pay any capital gains tax either. Therefore, your tax expenditure figure is contingent on the assumption that taxpayer A would have sold his shares in any case, when in fact the argument in favour of reducing--and in this case, eliminating--capital gains tax on gifts of publicly listed securities is contingent on the idea that this public policy decision actually catalyzed an activity that would not have occurred otherwise.
If we assume that taxpayer A would not have executed any transaction or donation, there's no tax expenditure. I think it's very important when you apply what is, in some ways, a government construct of a tax expenditure to this situation that we consider, depending on how we look at it, that there's no tax expenditure if in fact there had been no contribution, and if the reduction in and elimination of the capital gains tax on publicly listed securities had no impact on taxpayer A's decision. Do you understand the logic?