The briefing notes provided to us by the Library of Parliament indicate that, “eligible agents would be allowed to use the voting rights attached to any share purchased in a financial institution.”
I can understand why, in the context of what is being presented to us, that the eligible agents could use their vote within the imposed guidelines on a foreign property by the Banking Act, for example.
My question is the following. Why are there two different rules for the eligible agents and for the other government organizations, which could also invest but not use their right to vote?