I'm simply trying to think of an example—Mr. Marston, you might be able to help me with that—of why there'd be a situation such that only unionized workers would be allowed to bid on a job. I have a hard time understanding that. It could be ideology, and that's fair, but in the same breath, we have only so many dollars to spend every year and we want to be as efficient with that money as possible and still provide the services that Canadians have come to expect.
I say you can do it with a unionized shop or without a unionized shop; I'm not making a preference either way. I'm simply trying to figure out why we would be gerrymandering a tendering process to favour one over the other.
Mr. Oakey.