Obviously this represents quite a considerable way of doing business, because someone could, theoretically, take a large asset, be bound to that asset over a period of time—perhaps a 20-year lease or longer—without having to attribute it to some sort of payment schedule, like a debt instrument. What is the rationale for this? Is this going to allow the government to make it? To me, there's always a transparency issue and we do know, even from our experience here on Parliament Hill, that there is a difference between government deciding to lease buildings versus owning them. If you could just give me a little more information, I'd appreciate that.
On May 8th, 2018. See this statement in context.