About this particular scheme that was developed and marketed by your firm, I find it curious the terminology that you use in here, your speaking notes, about how the world has changed and therefore you're not doing now what you did in 1999.
Is it possible that one of the reasons you do it differently is because of the charges that KPMG was subject to in the United States around the time period of about 2005 having to do with offshore tax havens? Did that cause KPMG worldwide to take a different decision on these kinds of schemes?