That's exactly my point. In the current circumstances, the government is breaking its own law. It is deciding to repeal the Federal Balanced Budget Act retroactively. The act is applicable now, but once the provision is adopted, it will never have been applicable, as if by magic.
Is it common practice to retroactively repeal a piece of legislation the government itself is violating? Has that been done often in the last 10, 20 or 30 years? The government is currently violating a piece of legislation and is exempting itself from that offence.
I want to clarify that I'm not especially fond of the Federal Balanced Budget Act. For me....