I have very little time left.
I have one last question for you, going back to the inflation target.
I completely understand the success of the targeting agreement that has been in place since the 1990s: the key is that expectations are known. This also stabilizes expectations.
Ultimately, the argument you are making for the future, say in five years. when the agreement will be renegotiated, is that once again the rate will not be changed.
The agreements are for five years, but your argument is that the target rate will always be 2% because market expectations, those of investors and other influential actors, are always based on a rate of 2%. Would there be a way of changing that in the future or will it always be 2%, even though the agreements are for five years?