Do you think that is consistent with what we intend when we require, for regulatory reasons, that a bank have a buffer? I typically think of that as being cash or highly liquid treasuries. It seems like a bit of an accounting trick that the bank would send those mortgages over to you, you'd give them a stamp, send them back, and then they'd claim that those are their liquid assets counting toward their buffer.
I'm not a banker or an accountant, but it does seem like it's not in keeping with the regulatory purpose of that policy.