No. Those would be all subject to the same rules.
Price paid and payable is something slightly different. It doesn't play with the free on board element.
I'm going to use a book as an example. I'm a U.S. worldwide library. I decide to pay China $1 for that book. It's going to be sold at the end of the day. The last price of export to a purchaser in Canada, who might be me, could be $10, but it's been bought for $1 by the U.S. affiliate, and it's being shipped directly to Canada. Technically, under the law right now, it can be interpreted as a $1-value for the purpose of customs valuation. Meanwhile, the purchaser in Canada has paid $10 for that book. I'm the purchaser, which means the valuation of the good should be based on that $10, not $1.
I don't know if that helps to clarify.