Thank you very much.
On the question of the anti-flipping tax, I was just curious to know, following up on your exchange with Monsieur Ste-Marie.... It's about a 50% behavioural change, if you will. The anticipated behavioural change ends up being about 50% of the cost structure. Obviously, there are reasons in people's lives why they may buy a home and then sell it within a year. Some of that is covered by exemptions. Is the remaining 50% largely, in your estimation, house sale activity that will arise but be covered by those exemptions, or is there a significant portion of that where you believe people will make enough money that it's worth continuing to flip houses even though the income will be taxed as business income?
Do you have a sense of the breakdown between what those sales that would be covered under the exemptions would be versus those sales that would simply proceed with the proceeds of the sales being categorized as business income?