I wanted to ask our officials to help us understand what the implications of this would be. Maybe I will give the clerk a second to do that.
My concern is understanding.... Now that we have this new language—and I know it was developed with the best of intentions—what are the implications? I'm not a tax lawyer, but let me ask this. Is it possible that the language in yellow—“taxable dividends to an individual who is a holder of common shares of the company or of the subsidiary of the company”—would in any way inadvertently capture funds that were meant for business operations? Would that inhibit a company from operating a business in any way?