To that point, we've heard testimony that said—and I think it's been referenced earlier, but I'll try to be perhaps a bit more specific—it was directed to licence-holders and not to licence owners. Is that a legitimate distinction? In other words, a person who holds the licence could be somebody leasing it, because licences are leased, and they hold it and are fishing it. They're not actually the ultimate owner.
Did the survey go to the company that may have been leasing it or holding it rather than the actual owner?