I want to make sure I understood. I own a company which manufactures hot water pumps. The Department of Public Works and Government Services Canada decides to open a bidding process because it has to replace its furnaces or the hot water pump which supplies hot water to our beautiful buildings, which incidentally do not have any water as we speak. So a typically Canadian company and an American subsidiary each put in a bid. Both companies submit similar specifications and estimates, but the Canadian subsidiary of the American company wins the contract. The Canadian business owner claims there has been prejudice. What happens? It is a good question, is it not?
On May 29th, 2008. See this statement in context.