It's a fair question. Perhaps, it was an attempt to address another known failing. There are examples where there are low bidders who bid so low that they can't actually perform the work, but they need to ultimately have an opportunity to provide government services so that they can build up their resume and ultimately have experiences in subsequent opportunities. They bid below profit margins.
As a result, what's happened to the government in many instances is that suppliers are not able to ultimately fulfill the services, because it's no longer profitable for them, or, alternatively, they decline the work. They are awarded the contract based on the price, but when it comes time to deliver on the work, they don't do the work, so there's a significant amount of time loss.
To address your question in terms of the price bands, though, I think what happened here is that there was a deviation in the price band. As a result of the deviation, a clause that should have affected the ability to justify a low price wasn't available.