My understanding is that the courts, administrative tribunals and other decision-making bodies have had to rule on Parliament's original intent as referenced in laws or regulations. Can you tell me whether that is indeed true?
The Public Service Employment Act includes a number of definitions, and in some cases, they aren't very clear. With all due respect to Mr. Housefather, whom I hold in high regard, I would remind my fellow members that a regulatory definition doesn't necessarily ensure any more clarity. In many cases, the courts have had to clarify, in a number of ways, definitions as they apply in practice, including in connection with the Public Service Employment Act and federal labour law. Is that an accurate statement?