The way I look at it is that if we refer a patient from one person to another and the patient says, “Yes, I will go to see that specialist”, that is implied consent. For that specialist to do the job properly, they need me to send the information to the patient.
The second thing is that, when the patient wants to share with somebody something in their personal health record, the patient owns their personal health record and gives permission to the clinician to view the record.
Does that answer the question?