I understand. It's a difficult question to ask, and there may have to be a political decision moving forward. Because neither of you feels you have the expertise to answer this, I'll ask Dr. Vargesson.
You have a paper titled, “Thalidomide-induced teratogenesis: history and mechanisms”. You state, “Thalidomide embryopathy is a severe condition and affects many tissues, all of which can occur independently in humans but rarely together.” Does that mean that if a patient presented with a number of such conditions, the assumption should be thalidomide?
Also, from what you've heard today concerning the Canadian system criteria, would you recommend to our colleagues down at the end of the table that perhaps the criteria could be changed?