Okay. Then I'll just move to one more question I have here.
Mr. Fedyk, in your statement you talked about persistent poverty. I was struck when I read that you said, “That is, they have a cumulative income over a six-year period that is below the cumulative low-income threshold for that six-year period”. If I read that, I would think, for example, about someone who might have zero income, someone who is homeless and might be dealing with some substance abuse issues for three or four years, and then overcomes those issues and goes out and makes an income for the last two years, significantly over the amount required to be above the poverty line. Yet they would still be considered within the “persistent poor”. Is that accurate?