Excuse me.
If I understand you correctly, in essence, if the hours that you're on strike count towards your qualifying period so that you can get EI, and if you accept the fact that both the employer and the employee pay premiums, one would indirectly come to the conclusion that the employer would be paying during those strike hours towards the employees' potentially getting a benefit, even though they're not available for work and are not engaged with that particular business.
Do you think it might be unfair to the employer to have that happen?