I don't know the details of that agreement, but if that's the internal free trade agreement, if you like, between the provinces, to the extent that any regulatory regime in a province presented a barrier to economic trade, the argument could be made that the regulatory regime is not really there for bona fide regulatory purposes; it's there to protect local jobs or to prevent trade with another province. That's a matter of debate, argument, and ultimately, I suppose, it might be a matter for the courts to decide, were it brought to the courts.
I couldn't answer specifically without examining more closely the terms of that agreement and what's actually being done as to whether what's being done represents such an exaggerated regulatory regime that it starts to look like it's an obstruction to the free trade of goods.