I want to come back to a question that Mr. Wilson asked earlier. He said that Mr. Chapman had lost his citizenship because of the 1947 legislation, but, according to section 5 of that same statute, his Canadian citizenship could have been restored to him.
So, if he lost his citizenship under a statute that was out of date, even if it was repealed in 1977, why was he not given back his citizenship under that same statute? Was this question answered? If so, what was the answer?