I'm trying to get at the clarity.
I know what it means in terms of intent and speaking at committee. But in terms of the legal significance of inserting these new words, does this do something that the act would not have the capacity to do with the current wording? In legal terminology, if it doesn't specifically say “directly” and “indirectly”, does that mean I could commit a crime by having someone else provide that advice, as opposed to me directly giving the advice to the client?