International agreements have to be incorporated into domestic law to be legally binding in the country. With this legislation, that's what we're doing with UNDRIP.
We're not the first country that has done this. My understanding is that a number of other countries have in some way or other incorporated UNDRIP into domestic legislation.
The Conservatives are quite concerned about the legal interpretation of “free, prior and informed consent”. My understanding is that when the courts look to interpret such terms, they look to international agreements to inform their interpretation, and perhaps to what other courts in other countries have done when interpreting those provisions.
Given that I don't think we're the first jurisdiction to be doing this, can I ask you what the interpretation of those provisions has been in other jurisdictions? Does it mean a veto?