My second question is the concern of whether adding the Liberals' amendment narrows what consent means.
What I appreciate about CPC-1 is that it's not prescribing consent. When I think about first nations and when I think about UNDRIP, I understand consent to be a collective notion, not an individual notion. I remember that we discussed this in a previous bill as well, when we were talking about individuals and the difference between how collective first nations, as a governing body, can show its consent.
I wonder if you can help to better describe conceptually what is meant by this, whether it's collective consent and how UNDRIP could be used to show that the minister did obtain consent from a first nation governing body.