Assuming, then, a scenario, we have to look at the probabilities of these things happening. When you put together the legislation, under clause 78, did you take into account in any way, shape, or form the legitimacy of a requirement for public or private enforcement? I think that's really the issue at hand.
You're saying it's overstated. I'm suggesting to you that certainly there is a legitimate concern. If I've been directed by a court to use or have a right to use, other than through consent, where do you draw the line?