I have a final question.
The way the Competition Act is currently written—on the civil side, certainly—if part of it has violated the Competition Act, a number of remedies are made available, but none of them include damages to the aggrieved party.
I'm wondering if in your opinion, Mr. Janigan—and perhaps Ms. Rodal could explain this. Why is it that lawyers in this country, who do extremely well, who are very much eminent members of the Canadian competition bar, never see the side of the little guy?