My last question deals with one of the elements of the crime. You were suggesting that Iran's relationship with Hezbollah and Hamas as clients was sufficient to fulfill the requirement of action, if I recall. Maybe you can elaborate on that. Is that not a potential weak spot in the argument, because it's more indirect than direct? Can you give me an example of a precedent in which that was a sufficient connection?
On March 31st, 2009. See this statement in context.