I can respond to that.
There is no direct obligation in the Rome Statute to provide civil remedies for the crimes that it prohibits. So I would not say that Canada is in violation of the Rome Statute for failing to provide a civil remedy. I would say the source of the breach, in our case, would be the convention against torture.
That being said, there is a view that could be taken that for all crimes of international law--torture, genocide, crimes against humanity, war crimes--a full panoply of remedies should be made available, criminal and civil. So that argument could be made, but to your earlier question, there is no direct obligation flowing from the Rome Statute.