Here is my first question to Professor Dershowitz, who indeed is the primary exponent of the first amendment doctrine in the U.S. Would it be fair to say that Ahmadinejad's incitement, as you appreciate it, if it were in the United States, would also be, in terms of incitement to violence, not protected speech even under the first amendment, though, for all the other reasons you have mentioned, clearly prohibited and criminal speech under the international law and genocide convention prohibition against the direct and public incitement to genocide? That's the first one.
The second and not unrelated question is this. You've made reference to the criminal law remedy of prosecution. One, is that remedy indeed possible? As we know, Iran is not a state party to the International Criminal Court treaty; therefore, it would require a reference from the UN Security Council. Number one, is that possible, and should we pursue it even if it is not possible because of the intrinsic value of making the case? Second, what other remedies are there to bring Ahmadinejad's Iran, as a country, to account, as well as individual liability remedies?