I've heard your comments, but I just wanted to get clarification. Would you characterize this whole situation as apartheid? Apartheid has been used somewhat loosely here. The situation with what happened in South Africa was a monstrous, hideous situation, where in fact the blacks were living in slave-like conditions and did not have a voice to exercise electorally. They didn't have a voice or anything at all in terms of mobility and so forth. Would you consider that the Dalits in India are in the same situation?
On March 26th, 2009. See this statement in context.