Well, I know you are, Mr. Chair, and I appreciate that.
So the issue is that “nothing in this Act...is to be construed to affect in any manner the right of Parliament to enact legislation” or to fulfill the government's obligations under the agreement. But if we come back to the issue that's arisen around the investor-state provisions, which is a matter of some real concern, it would not cover the right of Parliament to enact legislation, which would still be subject to provisions such as the investor-state provisions. Is that not correct?