No, you're saying the international labour laws...okay, then they don't have to be at that standard before a free trade agreement is in place. So actually what a free trade agreement does, folks, is allow the country to diversify and get economic strength so that it might actually get to a point where it has great labour laws, like in Canada.
I have a question, though, when you talk about the labour laws. This might be to Mr. Rowlinson. This is what I don't understand. And I know there are provincial labour laws. So when we talk about having a standard in Jordan in labour laws, does that mean it would only be that they would be for unions?
Let me give you an example. Should a company here...and I'm trying to think of the word you used, have the opportunity to have...I forget the word. I should have written it down. Here, actually, if there is a business, and a union targets that business as one where it wants to set up a union shop, it can come in and do its lobbying and do its meetings and whatever. But in the one or two cases I've been involved with, if anybody else wants to promote non-union because of maybe the benefits of it or whatever, they actually can't do that. Is that fair treatment of labour? Would they have the same opportunity to voice an opinion against a labour union as a labour union would to oppose those companies not having one?