One wonders why we have an investor-state provision in this agreement at all. We know that it came from chapter 11 in NAFTA, in which we had concerns about the Mexican judicial system. We're dealing with Europe here, modern democracies with the rule of law. My understanding is that Canada put the ISDS provision on the table. The Europeans didn't want it. The Europeans have never signed an agreement that has investor-state provisions in it.
Why are we providing investors with access to an investor-state panel instead of making them use the domestic courts, as every other investor has to do? What is the rationale for that?