I understand that.
We had a witness, Barry Sookman, at our committee in May of this year. He's a trade lawyer. He said that other countries, such as those in Europe, have more robust patent protection and yet their prices are lower than Canada's. So there isn't a one-to-one relationship between the entry into force of free trade agreements and increases in drug prices.
Can you tell me if what he said is accurate, and if so, why are drug prices higher in Canada than other jurisdictions where drug manufacturers have a longer period of IP protection?